Review Question - QID 212096

A 21-year-old male collegiate basketball player presents with left knee pain and swelling after landing awkwardly from a rebound. The patient previously underwent an ACL reconstruction of the left knee at 16 years of age with an ipsilateral bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. On physical examination, the patient has a large effusion with a range of motion limited from 10° to 80° of knee flexion. Lachman's and pivot shift are both positive. Radiographs are unremarkable for any fractures but demonstrate 10° of mechanical axis varus, an 87° mechanical lateral distal femoral angle, and 15° of posterior tibial slope. CT scan confirms appropriate tunnel position, with the largest diameter measuring 10mm. He wants to continue playing at the same level. After the patient regains his normal range of motion, which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment option?