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Technique guide are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including the ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 25-year-old male sustains a humeral shaft fracture and is treated with the implant seen in Figure A. Compared with open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and screw construct, the treatment shown in Figure A is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?
Increased shoulder impingement
No difference in rate of union
Increased shoulder range of motion
No difference in rate of radial nerve injury
Increased risk of revision surgery
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A 30-year-old man is brought to your level 1 trauma center with a closed left diaphyseal humerus fracture, a closed left midshaft femur fracture, right sided rib fractures, and multiple facial fractures following a motorcycle accident. He is neurovascularly intact in his left arm and leg. Figure A shows a radiograph of his left humerus. What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment?
Non-operative management of the humerus and plating of the femur
Plating of the humerus and intramedullary nailing of the femur
Non-operative management of the humerus and intramedullary nailing of the femur
Plating of both the humerus and femur
Intramedullary nailing of the humerus and plating of the femur
Which of the following is an indication for surgical treatment of an acute humeral shaft fracture?
radial nerve palsy
long oblique fracture type
Holstein-Lewis fracture type
ipsilateral both bone forearm fracture
A 23-year-old man presents with the injury seen in Figure A after a motor vehicle collision. He undergoes the treatment seen in Figure B. Which of the following statements is most accurate when comparing his treatment with open reduction and internal fixation?
Higher rates of radial nerve injury
Higher total complication rate
Lower rates of nonunion
Lower rates of shoulder impingement
Lower rates of malunion
A polytrauma patient sustains a right bicondylar tibial plateau fracture and a right humeral shaft fracture both treated with open reduction and internal fixation. He also underwent statically locked intramedullary nailing of a left femoral shaft fracture. What is the appropriate weightbearing status?
Non-weight bearing bilateral lower extremities and right upper extremity
Weight bearing as tolerated bilateral lower extremities and right upper extremity
Non-weight bearing left lower extremity and weight bearing as tolerated right upper and right lower extremities
Non-weight bearing right lower extremity and weight bearing as tolerated right upper and left lower extremities
Weight bearing as tolerated bilateral lower extremities and non-weight bearing right upper extremity
All of the following are considered contraindications to the use of functional bracing of a humeral shaft fracture EXCEPT:
Mid-diaphyseal segmental fracture with ipsilateral pilon fracture
Mid-diaphyseal fracture with radial nerve palsy from nonballistic penetrating injury
Proximal one-third oblique fracture
Mid-diaphyseal closed fracture with a radial nerve palsy on presentation
Mid-diaphyseal fracture with a L1 burst fracture and paraplegia on presentation
A 42-year-old man sustains the injury shown in Figure A after a fall from 6 feet. Physical exam after the injury reveals a flaccid ipsilateral limb. An MRI is performed that reveals nerve root avulsions from C5-T1. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of his fracture at this time?
Closed management with a coaptation splint
Closed management with a coaptation splint followed by transition to a functional brace after 7-10 days
External fixation of humeral shaft fracture until brachial plexus injury resolves
Open reduction, surgical fixation with plating
Closed management with a sling until brachial plexus injury resolves
During an open reduction internal fixation of a humerus fracture using the posterior approach, a surgeon can identify the posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve and trace it proximally to which of the following nerves?
A 26-year-old right hand dominant male is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains the left humerus injury demonstrated in Figure A. The brachial artery is disrupted and requires urgent attention in the operating room. The patient's preoperative nerve evaluation demonstrates that the patient is unable to initiate extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis proprius, and extensor pollicis longus motor activity. What is the most likely etiology for this observed neurologic examination?
Neurapraxia of the median nerve
Axonotmesis of the radial nerve
Neurotmesis of the ulnar nerve
Neurotmesis of the radial nerve
Axonotmesis of the ulnar nerve
On average, the radial nerve travels from the posterior compartment of the arm and enters the anterior compartment at which of the following sites?
Spiral groove of the humerus
At the arcuate ligament of Osborne
10 cm distal to the lateral acromion
10 cm proximal to radiocapitellar joint
At the origin of the deep head of the triceps
A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture. He has wrist drop as well as impaired finger and thumb extension. Which motor function would be expected to recover last?
Wrist extension in radial deviation
Middle finger MCP extension
Index finger MCP hyperextension
A 25-year-old male involved in a motor vehicle accident sustains multiple injuries. He undergoes operative treatment for his humeral shaft fracture. Figures A and B show his preoperative and postoperative radiographs. The distal interlocks for this implant place which of the following nerves at risk?
A 68-year-old male sustains the humeral shaft fracture shown in Figures A and B. Upon presentation, he is unable to extend his thumb, fingers, and wrist. After 4 months of non-operative management, the fracture has healed, but his physical exam is unchanged. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
EMG and nerve conduction tests followed by possible surgical exploration
Immediate surgical exploration
CT scan of the humerus
A 45-year-old male sustains a Gustilo and Anderson Type II open transverse humeral shaft fracture. He undergoes the treatment shown in Figures A and B. What is the advantage of this treatment choice as compared to antegrade intramedullary nailing?
Decreased risk of post-operative elbow pain
Decreased risk of radial nerve injury
Decreased risk of reoperation
Decreased risk of infection
Decreased risk of blood loss
Which of the following is true regarding plating of humeral shaft fractures compared to intramedullary nailing?
worse functional results
higher need for subsequent surgeries
higher incidence of radial nerve injury
lower complication rates
decreased nonunion rates
AIM:Identify complication of different treatment option of humoral shaft fr...
How I treat the very bad arm fracture with nerve palsy.
Title: Session 5 - Panel Discussion Presenter: PanelColumbia University Orthoped...
Title: Humeral Shaft Fractures- Which need ORIF? Presenter: Melvin P. Rosenwass...
HPI - Grade 5 splenic lac (IR treated)
Some ipsilateral ribs
Is supposed to go to Japan in 4 weeks to help with R&B star media relations
How would you treat this patient?
HPI - The patient suffered a comminuted humeral shaft fracture 9 months ago which was neglected. He presents now with pain and loss of function in his arm.
How would you manage this patient at this point?
HPI - Distal humerus fracture following an arm wrestling injury.
The patient underwent ORIF of the fracture - images are shown, both intra-op and at 4 weeks after ORIF.
Was the initial operative management (ORIF) appropriate for this patient?