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Technique guide are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including the ABOS, EBOT and RC.
Tears in the peripheral one-third of the meniscus have higher healing rates following meniscal repair than those in a more central location. This clinical observation is explained by which of the following anatomic factors?
Increased blood supply
Increased type II collagen
Increased type I collagen
Increased glycosaminoglycan content
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
Splitting between the iliotibial band and biceps tendon, then retracting the gastrocnemius posteriorly provides exposure for which of the following procedures?
Two-incision ACL reconstruction
Tibial-inlay PCL reconstruction
Peroneal nerve exploration
Inside-out medial meniscus repair
Inside-out lateral meniscus repair
Which of the following is NOT a contra-indication to isolated medial meniscal transplantation?
Patient age over thirty
Grade IV chondromalacia
An 18-year-old football player sustained a twisting injury to his knee approximately 1 month ago. He complains of continued knee pain with occasional locking and catching. Figure A demonstrates the injury on a T1 sagittal MRI. What physical exam finding is classically seen with this injury?
No endpoint with valgus stressing of the knee
Positive apprehension sign with passive lateral patellar translation
Painful click is elicited as the knee is brought from flexion to extension with internal or external rotation
No endpoint with varus stressing of the knee
A positive posterior drawer and quadriceps active test
All of the following variables have a negative impact on the outcomes of isolated meniscal allograft transplantation EXCEPT?
Anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency
The use of a fresh frozen graft
Femoral condyle flattening
Graft size mismatch of 15%
An 18-year-old competitive tennis player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. He develops pain and swelling and is unable to straighten his knee. The MRI is shown in the Figure A. What is the most approriate treatment?
Arthroscopic medial meniscectomy or repair
Arthroscopic lateral meniscectomy or repair
Physical therapy with gradual stretching exercises
Corticosteroid injection for acute inflammation
A 16-year-old female field hockey player sustains a twisting injury to her knee. On exam, she cannot extend the knee past 30 degrees. Arthroscopy confirms a displaced bucket-handle tear of the lateral meniscus with a 3-mm peripheral rim. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Meniscal repair using all-inside bioabsorbable arrows/darts
Meniscal repair using inside-out horizontal mattress sutures
Meniscal repair using inside-out vertical mattress sutures
A young athlete sustains an isolated meniscal tear and undergoes arthroscopy. The surgeon performs a meniscal repair. Which of the following factors is most important in determining healing rates?
Days from injury to repair
Medial versus lateral meniscus
Width of the meniscal rim
Use of growth hormone
Dominant versus non-dominant leg
Following meniscal repair, saphenous nerve injury is more common with which of the following techniques?
Inside-out lateral repair
All-inside lateral repair
Inside-out medial repair
All-inside medial repair
Equal rates for both lateral and medial
The meniscal injury pattern of the left knee seen in the arthroscopic video shown in Figure A is best described as which of the following?
Medial horizontal cleavage tear
Lateral radial tear
Medial parrot beak-type tear
Medial displaced bucket-handle tear
Lateral cyclops tear
A 19-year-old male is playing football and hears a pop in his left knee during a tackle 12 days ago. He was unable to return to the game and reports a large amount of swelling in the knee. On examination today he lacks full extension. A coronal and sagittal MRI is shown in Figures A and B, respectively. Which of the following is the best next step in management.
Rest and icing followed by physical therapy for definitive management
Arthroscopic removal of osteochondral loose body
Arthroscopic meniscus repair followed by immediate joint mobilization
Physical therapy for immediate joint mobilization followed by delayed arthroscopic PCL reconstruction once ROM is near normal
Immediate ACL reconstruction
A "double PCL sign" seen on a sagittal MRI image of a knee is indicative of which of the following conditions?
Combined ACL and PCL tear
Bucket-handle meniscal tear
HPI - A left knee injury occurred during a football game when he jumped over an opposing player and landed with a valgus twisting force to his left knee. He felt a pop and experienced immediate pain and swelling.
Radiographs, MRI images & arthroscopy photos are shown.
What would be your definitive management for this patient? (See arthroscopic view of meniscal tear below)
HPI - 48 year old male present with a 12-month history of predominantly lateral-sided knee pain.
The pain is aggravated with activity and worse when flexing the knee beyond 80 degrees.
The patient previously underwent a left knee arthroscopy in 2011, with a partial lateral meniscectomy (posterior 1/3 80% excised).
He recently had a diagnostic arthroscopy which confirmed posterolateral wear involving both the tibial surface and the posterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle.
What conservative treatment would you recommend, if any, in this patient?
HPI - 46F with a chief complaint of right knee pain that began when she heard a pop while performing yoga. She states she subsequently further injured her knee while running and now has a moderate effusion as well as mechanical symptoms. She has been unable to fully extend her right knee, lacking approximately 8 degrees of terminal extension. She is otherwise healthy, enjoys running, and has a BMI of 21.
In a 46 year old avid runner with a medial bucket handle tear, what is the preferred treatment option?