Please rate topic.
Average 4.0 of 27 Ratings
Thank you for rating! Please vote below and help us build the most advanced adaptive learning platform in medicine
You have 100% on this question. Just skip this one for now.
Figure A shows a clinical image of a 45-year-old female who complains of swelling and pain over the lateral aspect of the fifth metatarsophalangeal joint. She has tried all nonoperative recommendations with no improvement. Figure B shows an AP radiograph of her foot. What surgical treatment is indicated in this scenario?
Lateral Condylar Resection
Metatarsal Head Resection
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
Distal chevron osteotomies are most indicated for which of following scenarios involving a bunionette deformity?
Type I deformities in patients who will not tolerate weight bearing restrictions post-operatively
Patients with a laterally bowed fifth metatarsal, no keratotic lesions, and a normal 4-5 intermetatarsal angle
Patients who remain symptomatic after prior extensive lateral condylar resection
Type III deformity with a 4-5 intermetatarsal angle of 13 degrees
Painful type I deformity with associated intractable lateral keratotic lesions
A diaphyseal fifth metatarsal osteotomy is the optimal surgical treatment for which of the following patients who has failed nonsurgical management?
28-year-old woman with a Jones fracture nonunion
50-year-old woman with a physiologic bow to the 5th metatarsal and a lateral prominence of the 5th metatarsal head
54-year-old woman with a widened 4-5 intermetatarsal angle and a lateral prominence of the 5th metatarsal head
35-year-old woman with prominent lateral condyle of her 5th metatarsal head, without bowing of the metatarsal and with normal 4-5 intermetatarsal angle
60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis and a plantar plate rupture