Please rate topic.
Average 4.0 of 37 Ratings
A 56-year-old diabetic female presents with the painful right toe deformity shown in Figure A. Physical exam reveals MTP dorsiflexion, and flexion at the DIP and PIP joints. The PIP and MTP joints are flexible, and she has failed conservative treatment. Which of the following is the best surgical treatment option for this patient?
Girdlestone-Taylor flexor-to-extensor tendon transfer
Complete MTP capsulotomy and resection arthroplasty of the proximal phalanx with tendon release/lengthening
Complete MTP capsulotomy and resection arthroplasty of the proximal phalanx with a Weil osteotomy
Isolated Weil osteotomy of the affected metatarsal
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 54-year-old female has struggled with 2nd metatarsalgia that is not relieved with orthotics. She undergoes a metatarsal shortening osteotomy using the technique demonstrated in Figure A. Following surgery she complains that her 2nd toe "floats" above the level of the remaining lesser toes. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Lack of appropriate post-operative immobilization
Technique of surgical osteotomy
Post-operative cerebrovascular event causing neuromuscular imbalance
Inadvertent tethering of the extensor tendon during surgical procedure
Surgical site infection