3.8 of 56 Ratings
Technique guides are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 43-year-old male sustained a left ankle injury 3 years ago. Radiographs at the time were negative and his pain improved over the next two months. However, for the last six months, he has developed persistent ankle pain with intermittent swelling. He has been treating his symptoms with physical therapy and anti-inflammatory medications with little effect. Physical examination elicits pain with ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion, although subtalar motion is normal. Figures A and B are radiographs of the left ankle. Figure C shows the corresponding MRI. What would be the next most appropriate step for treatment?
Total contact cast immobilization and nonweight-bearing for 6 weeks
Open autologous chondrocyte implantation
Arthroscopic marrow stimulation
Ankle corticosteroid injection
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 21-year-old male reports right ankle pain after sustaining an inversion ankle injury 2 years ago. He complains of mechanical symptoms with ankle movement that continue to be symptomatic with everyday activities. During his workup, an MRI shows a 1x1 cm lateral talar osteochondral defect (OCD). When compared to medial talar OCDs, which of the following statements is true regarding lateral talar OCDs?
Increased incidence of traumatic etiology
Lesions are usually deeper
Better chance of spontaneous resolution
Usually more posterior
Are more common
A 30-year-old professional ballet dancer presents with persistant ankle pain after an ankle sprain 6 months ago. Physical therapy and NSAID's have not alleviated the symptoms. Physical exam reveals some joint swelling but no ligamentous instability. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the next appropriate step in the management of this patient?
Continue physical therapy
Avoidance of dancing with CAM walker boot for 2 weeks
MRI of the ankle
Ankle steroid injection
Diagnostic ankle arthroscopy