4.0 of 11 Ratings
A 60-year-old woman presents with the condition seen in Figure A following corrective forefoot surgery 6 years ago. She has attempted to manage her condition with shoe wear modifications, taping and splinting but has consistent pain. Her metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint is not completely reducible on exam. Which of the following treatment options offers her predictable alignment and pain relief?
MTP joint hemiarthroplasty
Lateral metatarsal opening wedge osteotomy
First metatarso-cuneiform arthrodesis
MTP joint arthrodesis
MTP joint interpositional arthroplasty
Select Answer to see Preferred Response