Compressive injury to the posterior interosseous nerve will lead to EMG fibrillations in which of the following muscles?

Patient A presents to your clinic, and you diagnose them with cubital tunnel syndrome. Patient B presents 10 minutes later, and you diagnose them with ulnar tunnel syndrome. Of the listed answer choices, which physical exam finding would be present in Patient B with ulnar tunnel syndrome, but not in Patient A with cubital tunnel syndrome?

A 14-year-old boy sustains the injury shown in figure A. He subsequently develops compartment syndrome and requires fasciotomy. Injury to what artery is most likely responsible?

A 28-year-old male triathlete presents to your office for ev...

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A 35-year-old man presents with a history of right–leg compartment syndrome following a motorcycle crash, complicated by delayed diagnosis and treatment. He has persistent functional deficits in the right lower extremity and currently relies on an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) for ambulation. He reports pain and discomfort from the brace and is interested in potential surgical options to eliminate the need for it. On examination, his ankle is supple, demonstrating 40° of passive plantarflexion and 20° of passive dorsiflexion, unchanged with knee flexion or extension. Motor testing reveals 5/5 plantarflexion strength, 0/5 dorsiflexion strength, and 4/5 eversion strength. What is the most appropriate intervention to restore active ankle dorsiflexion?

You are seeing a 47-year-old male who you previously diagnos...

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A 35-year-old male presents to the orthopedic clinic with a ...

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The patient in Figure 55 is actively attempting to make a fi...

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A 17-year-old male presented to a local emergency room with the injury shown in Figure A. Given multiple issues with transferring the patient to an appropriate center for higher level of care, his progressively increasing pain was treated with increasing doses of opioid analgesics until he was assessed 14 hours later, at which point he was urgently taken to the operating room. On examination of his anterior compartment musculature intra-operatively, >75% was deemed non-viable and had to be debrided, resulting in a persistent post-operative foot drop. He is evaluated three months later, and exam finds no appreciable function of his tibialis anterior with preserved 5/5 strength in his superficial and deep posterior and lateral compartments. He has been going to physical therapy and has supple ankle range of motion, leading his surgeon to recommend a tendon transfer procedure to treat his functional deficit. The tendon of which of the following labeled structures in Figure B is the treating surgeon planning to re-route to the lateral cuneiform?

A 25-year-old male is stabbed in the proximal volar forearm ...

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A 25-year-old ballet dancer presents with vague pain over th...

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A 25-year-old ballet dancer presents with vague pain over th...

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A 48-year-old middle school teacher presents to your clinic ...

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A 34-year-old seamstress was diagnosed with Parsonage-Turner brachial neuritis in the right upper extremity one month ago. She has weak forearm pronation with the elbow in the flexed position. She denies any current sensory changes and admits vague and deep right forearm pain. A clinical image of her hands attempting to make a clenched fist is shown in Figure A. Which of the following most likely represents her diagnosis and treatment?