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Review Question - QID 3894

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QID 3894 (Type "3894" in App Search)
A 20-year-old active-duty female presents to clinic for initial evaluation of right foot pain. The patient was initially evaluated 3 weeks ago by her primary care provider after insidious onset of pain around the second metatarsal that began halfway through basic training, roughly two months ago. The patient’s last menstrual cycle was noted to be around this time as well. X-rays at the time of initial evaluation were negative so the patient continued with unimpeded activity. Her pain progressed and an MRI was obtained, which is demonstrated in Figure A. In addition to a workup for metabolic bone disease, what is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
  • A

In-situ intramedullary screw fixation

19%

345/1814

Open soft tissue and bone biopsy through a dorsal medial approach

2%

42/1814

Open reduction and internal fixation with a dorsally based plate

3%

52/1814

Injection of calcium phosphate and bone marrow aspirate

21%

390/1814

Immobilization in a short walking cast

54%

977/1814

  • A

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The patient's history and MRI are consistent with a stress fracture of the distal aspect of the second metatarsal. The most appropriate initial treatment is a trial non-operative management with a short walking cast or a fracture boot.

Metatarsal stress fractures are relatively common and are most frequent in the second and third metatarsal, but can also be seen in the fifth metatarsal. High-risk populations include runners, military recruits, ballet dancers, basketball players, or those with a recent increase in activity or training. Metatarsals are loaded perpendicular to their long axis, and the relatively fixed proximal anatomy of the second and third metatarsals makes them particularly prone to diaphyseal stress fracture. Due to its length and overall immobility, the distal second metatarsal shaft remains the most common location for fracture. Further risk factors include a long 2nd metatarsal, hypermobile first ray, and female gender. Metatarsalgia, metatarsophalangeal synovitis, Freiberg’s infarction, and Morton’s neuroma should also be considered in the differential. Radiographs may be negative or show callus formation. MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis in cases of negative radiographs. Initial treatment usually involves immobilization in a walking cast or fracture boot (a hard-soled shoe may also be appropriate), activity modification, and symptom resolution guides return to activity (typically over a period of 6-8 weeks).

Boden and Osbahr provided a review on the evaluation and treatment of high-risk stress fractures. They discuss the pathology, clinical evaluation and use of imaging for stress fractures, including stress fractures involving the femoral neck, tibia, patella, medial malleolus, talus, navicular, 5th metatarsal, and great toe sesamoid.

Pell et al. provided a review of leg pain in the running athlete, covering the etiology, presentation, imaging/diagnostic findings, and management of athletes with medial tibial stress syndrome, stress fractures, chronic exertional compartment syndrome, and popliteal artery entrapment. They also touch on nerve entrapment syndromes, gastrocnemius-soleus muscle strains, tibiofibular synostosis, effort-induced DVT, and muscle herniation. Finally, they designed a nice algorithm for the diagnosis of these potential causes.

Figure A is a T2-weighted MRI image demonstrating a distal diaphyseal stress fracture of the second metatarsal with surrounding edema.

Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1, 3, and 4: Operative intervention should only be considered after a trial of non-operative management fails.
Answer 2: There is no evidence of a soft tissue or bony lesion on the patient’s MRI that would warrant a biopsy. The history and MRI are consistent with a stress fracture.

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