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A 53-year-old woman is seen in the adult spine clinic for long-standing back pain. History reveals she had untreated scoliosis as a child. Her current radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. Due to discomfort with ADLs and progressive pain, surgical intervention is planned. Which of the following factors would increase her risk of nonunion?
An anterior thoracoabdominal approach
Preoperative Cobb angle of 60 degrees
Age greater than 35 years
A posterior midline approach
Positive sagittal balance < 5 cm
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In adult patients with scoliosis, severity of symptoms correlates with which of the following variables?
Magnitude of coronal Cobb angle
Number of spine levels involved in the deformity
Level of the apex of the curve
What is the incidence of major complications following adult spinal deformity surgery?
In patients with adult scoliosis requiring long thoracolumbar fusions, which of the following is the major advantage of extending the fusion to the sacrum as opposed to ending at L5.
Improved function outcomes
Decreased pseudoarthosis rates
Decreased major medical complications
Improved correction and maintenance of sagittal balance
Improved curve correction in the coronal plane
Lateral Deformity Techniques was presented by Antoine Tohmeh, MD at the Seattle...
HPI - A 68 year old female who works as a house wife presents with a history of backache and lower back pain that started 3 months ago.
The pain started gradually with an insidious onset but progressed in nature. In the beginning, the pain was worse with long standing and walking with no radiculopathy. It was relieved with analgesic medications.
Later on, approximately 1 month ago, the pain became more severe, radiated to left leg and associated with paraesthesia at the level of L4,5 and present while lying in bed at night. The pain was associated with a feeling of weakness, weight loss, and poor appetite. The patient has not had a clear fever. Currently, the pain is not controlled with analgesic medications (including tramadol).
What is the diagnosis?