Figures 39a and 39b show the current radiographs of an 8-year-old girl who has had pain in the left thigh for the past 3 months. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and started treatment 1 week ago. Examination reveals a mild abductor deficiency limp on the left side. She lacks 30 degrees internal rotation on the left hip compared with the right hip. Management should consist of

Figures 39a and 39b show the current radiographs of an 8-year-old girl who has had pain in the left thigh for the past 3 months. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and started treatment 1 week ago. Examination reveals a mild abductor deficiency limp on the left side. She lacks 30 degrees internal rotation on the left hip compared with the right hip. Management should consist of

On average, the radial nerve travels from the posterior compartment of the arm and enters the anterior compartment at which of the following sites?

A 68-year-old right hand dominant female trips over a curb at the grocery store and lands on an outstretched hand. She feels a “pop” in the right elbow and has immediate pain and deformity. She presents to the emergency department for evaluation and has initial radiographs obtained which are shown in Figures 1 and 2. What is the most appropriate definitive management of this patient’s injury?

A 22-year-old male professional baseball player presents wit...

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A healthy and athletic 13-year-old female presents for evalu...

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A 17-year-old girl has a 2-year history of progressive, pain...

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A 27-year-old motorcyclist is thrown from his vehicle and su...

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A 40-year-old woman is involved in motorcycle accident 2 hours ago and sustains an isolated right leg injury shown in Figure A. She has dopplerable posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis artery signals with less than 2 second capillary refill as shown in Figure B. Sensation is intact in the distribution of the tibial nerve but decreased in the distribution of the peroneal nerve. She is cleared by the general surgery trauma team to go to the operating room for treatment of her leg. What is the most appropriate Gustilo classification and initial treatment for her injury?

A 6-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an elbow injury after a fall from the monkey bars. A radiograph of his elbow is shown in Figure A. On presentation, his hand is warm and pink, but you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. He is otherwise neurologically intact. You take the patient back to the operating room for closed reduction and percutaneous pinning. After pinning, you note the hand is now cold with sluggish capillary refill. After removing the pins, the hand remains cold and pale. What is the next best step?

A 50-year-old right-hand dominant male presents with chronic...

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A 19-year-old male patient is referred to your clinic after he sustains a non-contact twisting injury to his right knee during a preseason soccer scrimmage. The patient is otherwise healthy and he reports that he underwent an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction on the same knee approximately one year ago. A hamstrings autograft was used. The patient progressed through his postoperative rehabilitation appropriately and was cleared to return to sport by his physical therapist. On examination, he has a positive pivot-shift test and a 2B Lachman. You order an MRI as part of your preoperative workup. What finding would be indicative of the leading cause of failure following ACL reconstruction?

A 44-year-old male with a history of intravenous drug abuse ...

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