A 69-year-old male presents to the emergency room with low back pain for 1 week duration. His past medical history is significant for diabetes and coronary artery disease that was treated with stenting 7 years prior. Recently he was hospitalized for a urinary tract infection which was treated with oral antibiotics. On physical exam he is afebrile and has no neurologic deficits in his lower extremity. Laboratory studies show a white blood cell count of 10,300/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 35 mm/h (reference range, 0-25 mm/h), and C-reactive protein of 13 mg/L (reference range, 0-5.0 mg/L). A radiograph and MRI are performed and shown in Figure A and B respectively. Repeat blood cultures x2 are performed and both show methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment.

A 70-year-old female presents to your office with a chief complaint of left thigh swelling and aching pain for several months. She denies any recent trauma or illnesses. She has a significant medical history of hypertension and cardiac catheterization in the past. X-ray and MRI images are shown in Figures 1 through 3. The patient undergoes core-needle biopsy through a lateral approach with pathologic examination showing necrotic tissue. What would be the best next step in diagnostic workup?

An American orthopedic surgeon meets with an attorney becaus...

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A 67-year-old man who underwent knee arthroplasty 7 years ago now reports the recent onset of pain and swelling. He denies any recent illness or change in medical status. Examination of the knee reveals a moderate effusion, slight warmth when compared to the contralateral knee, and no tenderness. Pain is increased with weight bearing. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 6,300/mm3 (normal 3,500-10,500/mm3), a hemoglobin level of 10.1 g/dL, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 25 mm/h (normal up to 20 mm/h), C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 0.3 mg/dL (normal less than 0.5 mg/dL), and a uric acid level of 6.2 mg/dL (normal 2.5-7.0 mg/dL). Postoperative and current radiographs are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 27-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of right ...

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A 52-year-old female presents to your office with complaints...

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A 17-year-old male American football lineman presents with l...

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A mother brings her 4-year-old daughter to your clinic for e...

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A 43-year-old woman has a pathologic right acetabular fracture seen in Figure 100. Laboratory studies are unremarkable but a bone scan shows multiple skeletal areas with increased activity, and a CT scan of the chest/abdomen/pelvis shows some visceral involvement and also a right breast mass, suspicious for a primary lesion. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

A 23-year-old male presents with right thigh pain that has worsened over the last 6 weeks. He reports frequent low-grade fevers and decreased energy. Current radiographs are depicted in figures A and B. His current ESR is 73 mm/hr and CRP is 23 mg/L. Which of the following findings would suggest the need for surgical treatment?

A 66-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance after feeling “a snap in his leg” when stepping down off his lifted truck. The patient reports antecedent thigh pain over the past few weeks but felt it was a strained muscle from working on his ranch. He has smoked one pack per day since his twenties but otherwise has no contributing past medical history. No open wounds are present, and Figures A and B demonstrate radiographic images obtained in the emergency department. He expresses a desire for a treatment that allows him to immediately walk so he can return to the busy season on his ranch. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 46-year-old male construction worker has right hip pain th...

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A 21-year-old collegiate wrestler presents to the team docto...

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During a medical mission to Guatemala, a 6-year-old child is...

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