Review Question - QID 219342

A 51-year-old male presents to the clinic after his masseuse pointed out a palpable mass along his right volar forearm. He notes that it is not particularly painful when palpated, but he has had progressively worsening paresthesias about the thumb, index, and middle fingers over the last year. On exam, there is a positive Tinel's sign along the same distribution. A representative slice from the patient's MRI is shown in Figure A, and he undergoes operative treatment with findings from the intra-operative frozen section shown in Figure B. Which of the following represents the best subsequent approach to his definitive treatment?