Review Question - QID 218100

A 68-year-old healthy female presents as an initial consultation to the clinic with 2 years of startup thigh pain. She has attempted physical therapy, NSAIDs, and activity modifications however her pain is recalcitrant to conservative measures. The pain is limiting her ability to perform activities of daily living such as grocery shopping. On physical examination, she has no tenderness to palpation of her lateral hip and has some pain with log roll. Her presenting radiograph is shown in Figure A. She states she had her hip replaced 13 years ago after a fracture from a fall and has regularly seen an endocrinologist for osteoporosis treatment since. Her ESR is 10mm/hr (normal: 0-20 mm/hr) and CRP is 0.7mg/dL (normal: 0.8-1.0mg/dL). A precautionary hip aspiration shows a synovial WBC count of 1,300 cells/mL with 72% segmented neutrophils and no growth on cultures. She is scheduled for revision to total hip arthroplasty. Intraoperatively the stem is found to be loose, however, the surgeon is having difficulty presenting the femoral canal and is only able to remove roughly half of the cement mantle. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management?