Please rate topic.
Average 4.1 of 34 Ratings
Thank you for rating! Please vote below and help us build the most advanced adaptive learning platform in medicine
A 12-year-old boy reports the acute onset of pain and a pop over the right side of his pelvis while swinging a baseball bat during a Little League game. Radiographs reveal an avulsion of the anterior superior iliac spine with 2 cm of displacement. Management should consist of
open reduction and internal fixation of the fragment along with the rectus femoris.
open reduction and internal fixation of the fragment along with the sartorius.
open reduction and internal fixation of the fragment along with the iliopsoas.
rest and protected weight bearing with crutches.
excision of the fragment.
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 15-year-old male has the immediate onset of pain during a 100 meter sprint while coming out of the starting blocks and could not complete the race. A pelvis radiograph is shown in Figure A. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Skeletal survey, chest CT, and referral to an orthopaedic oncologist for biopsy
Open reduction and internal fixation
Hip abduction brace immobilization with the hip in 45 degrees of flexion and neutral rotation for 6 weeks
Protected weight bearing and activity as tolerated
Immobilize in 120 degrees of knee flexion for 24 hours followed by physical therapy
A 12-year-old male has immediate pain and echhymosis over his right groin after injuring himself during a hockey game. His radiograph is shown in figure A. Which of the following statements is true regarding the insertion of his injured muscle?
Inserts on fibular head
Insertion on femur is anterior and distal to lateral collateral ligament of knee
Can be source of pes anserinus bursitis
Tendon is a harvest option for autograft ACL reconstruction
Extends the hip and flexes the knee
A 14-year-old male sprinter felt a pop and began to experience immediate left hip pain while participating in the 400-meter dash. Upon evaluation, he has difficulty bearing weight due to left hip pain and has tenderness to palpation superior to his left hip joint. Imaging of the pelvis is included in Figure A. Treatment should should include:
Fixation of the femoral neck stress fracture
Recession of the iliopsoas to releive internal snapping hip syndrome
Fixation of the sartorius origin
Fixation of the direct of head of rectus femoris origin
Progressive weightbearing with return to activities when pain free motion achieved
An avulsion fracture of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) in a adolescent athlete often occurs from forceful eccentric contraction of which of the following muscles?