3.7 of 51 Ratings
A 62-year-old female Zumba instructor presents to your clinic reporting progressive left knee pain and effusion that has been present for the past few months. Pain is exacerbated by weightbearing and physical exam is significant only for TTP over the medial joint line. A radiograph and MRI are shown in Figures A-B. Which of the following statements regarding management of this pathology is true?
Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) demonstrates reliable long-term outcomes when performed for this condition
UKA is appropriate for the spontaneous (but not secondary) form of this condition
UKA performed for this condition is associated greater failure rates than for osteoarthritis
The most common cause of failure following UKA for this condition is from tibial stress fractures
Total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is indicated for this patient due to high failure rates associated with UKA when performed for this condition
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 59-year-old female librarian complains of progressively worsening left knee pain over the last 4 months. She does not recall any traumatic injury to the knee. Physical exam is noteable for tenderness isolated to the medial joint line. She has full ROM and no instability of the knee. Radiographs and MRI image are provided in figures A,B, and C. Which of the following is the best management?
Chest CT and bone scan
Osteochondral autograft transfer
Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty
Valgus-producing high tibial osteotomy
A 74-year-old woman has had acute medial right knee pain for the past 3 months. She denies any history of trauma or previous problems. Coronal and sagittal MRI scans are shown in Figures 11a and 11b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Medial meniscal tear