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A 59-year-old female librarian complains of progressively worsening left knee pain over the last 4 months. She does not recall any traumatic injury to the knee. Physical exam is noteable for tenderness isolated to the medial joint line. She has full ROM and no instability of the knee. Radiographs and MRI image are provided in figures A,B, and C. Which of the following is the best management?
Chest CT and bone scan
Osteochondral autograft transfer
Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty
Valgus-producing high tibial osteotomy
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
HPI - 2011 was diagnosed with osteonecrosis of the right knee - no treatment then, kept bearing weight and the pain resolved - till now symptom free - ambulates well, tolerates the pain
How would you treat this patient?
HPI - Insidious right knee pain without trauma 4 weeks ago
Whati is the diagnosis?
HPI - Knee pain at last 3 months
No pain at rest
No signs of inflammation
What is the best treatment?