QUESTIONS 1 of 1 1 Previous Next (OBQ12.255) A 35-year-old patient sustains a bilateral anterior and posterior arch (C1) injury with an intact transverse ligament. Which of the following treatment options is most appropriate? QID: 4615 Type & Select Correct Answer 1 Observation alone 1% (50/4582) 2 Soft collar orthosis for 4-6 weeks 4% (183/4582) 3 Occipitocervical fusion 7% (329/4582) 4 Rigid collar orthosis for 6-12 weeks 80% (3674/4582) 5 Posterior C1-C2 fusion 7% (330/4582) L 2 Question Complexity B Question Importance Select Answer to see Preferred Response SUBMIT RESPONSE 4 Review Tested Concept Review Full Topic