Figures A is the MRI image of a 31-year-old female who presents with complaints of worsening ankle pain and limited motion for the past 10 months. She denies any trauma to the ankle. She ambulates without issue but admits to recurrent swelling and redness of the ankle. She is afebrile and CBC, ESR, and CRP are unremarkable. She underwent an aspiration which revealed 1,100 WBCs with 40% PMNs and >50,000 RBCs. She undergoes a biopsy of the lesion and the histologic finding is seen in Figure B. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?