(OBQ11.162)
A 2-year-old boy is seen for evaluation of a limp. His history is significant for a left knee infection treated with IV antibiotics as a neonate and a family history of cancer. Laboratory testing demonstrates a normal ESR and CRP. The remainder of his workup is negative. An AP pelvis is seen in Figure A. What was the most likely etiology of his condition?
QID:
3585