A 75-year-old female presents with chronic severe and progressively worsening right knee pain. Her symptoms have been present for nearly a decade, and she has failed an appropriate course of conservative management but remains persistently symptomatic. Radiographs are shown in Figures A through C. The patient finally elects to have surgery and receives a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The surgeon prefers an intramedullary femoral guide, posterior referencing, and an intra-medullary tibial guide. The surgeon should pay special attention to which of the following due to the nature of the deformity and preferred surgical technique?