A 34-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay following a motorcycle collision with a left femoral shaft fracture and an open right tibial plateau fracture. Radiographs are provided in figures A and B. He is proceeding to the operating room for an emergent splenectomy. The mean arterial pressure is 51 mmHg following 6 units of packed red blood cells as well as crystalloid replacement. Base deficit is 10 mmol/L. Neurosurgery is concerned for evolving subdural hematoma and is recommending serial head CT scans. Which of the following is the best immediate treatment option to address his fractures?