(OBQ11.151)
A 55-year-old female with longstanding type I diabetes presents for evaluation of her left foot, which is shown in Figure A. On exam, the soft tissue infection extends to the metatarsals plantarly, and there is a palpable posterior tibial artery pulse. She is otherwise medically stable, and without sepsis. Which of the following treatment options will most likely result in definitive management of her forefoot gangrene and allow the highest level of functional activity after surgery?
QID:
3574