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A 58-year-old right-hand dominant accountant falls off a bicycle 4 days ago and injured his left non-dominant shoulder. A radiograph is shown in Figure A. The axillary radiograph shows no antero-posterior translation. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Coracoclavicular ligament reconstruction
Acromioclavicular capsular reconstruction
Sling and early ROM exercises
Arthroscopic distal clavicle excision
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
For Grade III AC joint separations, surgical treatment results in which of the following when compared to non-operative management?
Faster return to play
Increased range of motion
Increased functional rotator cuff strength
Decreased funtional rotator cuff strength
Higher complication rate
A football player sustains a suspected shoulder separation. In addition to a true AP and an axillary lateral, which of the following additional radiographic views is most appropriate to evaluate the AC joint?
Stryker notch view
West Point view
Supraspinatus outlet view
A 46-year-old woman fell from her bicycle and sustained the injury shown in Figure 24. Which of the following ligaments has been disrupted?
Acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular
Coracoacromial and sternoclavicular
What is the preferred treatment for a symptomatic acute acromioclavicular separation where there is a 20% increase in the coracoclavicular distance on AP radiograph compared to the opposite uninjured side?
Anatomic coracoclavicular ligament reconstruction
Acute repair of acromioclavicular capsule
Sling followed by early physical therapy
Reduction and retrograde pinning of the acromioclavicular joint
Distal clavicle excision