American Shoulder and Elbow Surgeons
Please rate topic.
Average 3.9 of 34 Ratings
An 88-year-old female presents after a fall onto her left arm. She reports isolated left elbow pain, and radiographs are shown in Figure A. She lives in an assisted living facility, and reports no other major medical problems. The best outcome can be expected with which of the following definitive treatment options?
Open reduction internal fixation of the distal humerus fracture
Nonsurgical management with early passive range of motion exercises
Initial nonsurgical management followed by interpositional arthroplasty when the fracture has healed
Total elbow arthroplasty
Excision of the capitellar fragments and fixation of the trochlear fragments
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 20-year-old man falls from his bicycle. He is going to be scheduled for open reduction internal fixation. What best describes the injury shown in Figure A and B?
Capitellum fracture with extension into the trochlea
Radial head and capitellum fracture
Isolated capitellum fracture
Title: Elbow Capitellar OCDSpeaker: John E. Conway, MD Length: 11 mins 23 secs
HPI - Fell 3 months ago. No dislocation.
What is the best treatment
HPI - undiagnosed capitellum fracture 7 months ago.
Excision of the capitellum fragment 3 months ago followed by physioteraphy
How would you treat this patient now?
HPI - history of fall on semiflexed elbow
What approach would you use for this particular injury?