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Review Question - QID 1418

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QID 1418 (Type "1418" in App Search)
A 32-year-old dancer presents with right-sided posteromedial ankle pain. Her symptoms worsen during the "demi-pointe" position. MRI scan is shown in Figure A. Which of the following physical exam findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?
  • A

Reproduction of pain with percussion of the posterior tibial nerve

3%

67/2568

Painful crepitus of tendon with passive motion at great toe

69%

1764/2568

Posterior ankle pain with forced passive plantar flexion

16%

416/2568

Medial ankle pain with resisted inversion

11%

295/2568

Foot drop with weakness of dorsiflexion

0%

7/2568

  • A

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The correct answer is choice 2, painful crepitus of the tendon with passive motion at the great toe. Figure A shows an axial cut of an MRI with fluid centered around the flexor hallicus longus (FHL) tendon, consistent with a diagnosis of tendinitis. Passive motion of the great toe causes movement of the inflamed FHL tendon at the ankle joint and resulting pain.

Tendinitis of the FHL is common a common cause of medial-sided ankle pain in dancers. Physical exam findings include painful crepitus with passive motion of the great toe, posteromedial tenderness, and triggering of the great toe. Treatment is initially conservative with ice, NSAIDs and activity modification. Steroid injections are contraindicated given the close proximity of the posterior tibial nerve. If conservative treatment fails, release of the FHL from its fibro-osseous tunnel has shown good results.

Hamilton et al. in JBJS present level 3 evidence where they operated on 41 patients with a combination of FHL tendinitis and posterior impingement. For those with FHL tendinitis, release of the fibro-osseous was performed. 30 out of the 41 patients were described as having a good or excellent result.

OKU gives a brief overview of FHL tendinitis. They conclude that if non-operative measures fail (activity modification, PT, NSAIDs), release of the fibro-osseous tunnel should be considered.

Illustration A shows the axial MRI scan of the ankle with anatomic labels.

Incorrect answer choices:
Answer 1: Pain with percussion of the posterior tibial nerve is consistent with tarsal tunnel.
Answer 3: Posterior ankle pain with forced passive plantar flexion is characteristic of posterior impingement.
Answer 4: Medial ankle pain with resisted inversion is consistent with a diagnosis of posterior tibial tendinitis.
Answer 5: Foot drop with weakness of dorsiflexion is most consistent with acute rupture of the tibialis anterior tendon.

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