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A 29-year-old male presents with numbness and tingling in his lower extremities and gait instability for two weeks duration. Physical exam shows 3+ brisk patellar reflexes. Magnetic-resonance-imaging is shown in Figure A. What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?
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A 47-year-old male presents with back pain of 2 weeks duration. He denies night sweats, fevers, or weight loss. He localizes his symptoms to a dermatomal distribution along the rib cage on the right. On physical exam he has mild paraspinal tenderness, normal patellar reflexes, normal muscle strength in his lower extremities, and a normal gait exam. An MRI is shown in Figure A and B. What is the most appropriate first step in management?
A repeat MRI with gadolinium
CT of chest, abdomen, and pelvis followed by a CT guided biopsy of the spinal lesion
Physical therapy and NSAIDs
Surgical decompression using a midline posterior approach
Surgical decompression using a transthoracic approach
A 55-year-old woman undergoes endoscopic transthoracic anterior surgery for a herniated disk in the thorax. What is the most likely complication following surgery?
Intraoperative video of a left-sided transpedicular approach to the T3-4 disk sp...