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Review Question - QID 9022

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QID 9022 (Type "9022" in App Search)
A 40-year-old man fell off of a ladder at work sustaining the injury shown in Figures A and B. On examination, his skin is intact, but the pulses in his foot are absent. Following closed reduction and splinting, what would be the next best step?
  • A
  • B

Re-evaluate pulses

95%

3738/3925

Vascular surgery consultation

0%

17/3925

CT angiogram

2%

90/3925

Formal angiogram

0%

11/3925

Surgical exploration and stabilization

1%

23/3925

  • A
  • B

Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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This patient sustained a posterior ankle fracture/dislocation. After closed reduction and splinting, the next best step should be to re-evaluate pulses.

With any dislocation, an immediate closed reduction should be performed. Though the initial vascular examination was abnormal in this case, the dislocation is contributing to this finding. This unique ankle fracture is known as the hyperplantarflexion variant. It is composed of a posterior tibial lip fracture with posterolateral and posteromedial fracture fragments separated by a vertical fracture line.

Gardner et al. review the hyperplantarflexion variant and found that the fracture of the posteromedial tibial rim was the main feature of this injury which is sustained by a hyperflexion mechanism. They also reported that posterior malleolus fractures are present in a majority of these injuries as well. On MRI they determined that the deltoid and posterior tibiofibular ligaments were intact in all cases. They conclude, when treating these fractures with ORIF of the posteromedial and posterior fragments with antiglide fixation, excellent results were obtained.

Hinds et al. name the unique double cortical density at the inferomedial tibial metaphysis the "spur sign." They found the spur sign to be present in 79% of variant ankle fracture cases. They found the positive predictive value and negative predictive value to be 100% and 99%, respectively when this sign is present.

Figures A and B demonstrate the hyperplantarflexion variant ankle fracture. Illustration A demonstrates the spur sign, as indicated by the red arrow.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 2: Vascular consultation may be obtained if the vascular exam is abnormal.
Answer 3: CT angiography may be obtained after closed reduction to aid in the diagnosis of vascular injury if the exam is abnormal after closed reduction.
Answer 4: A formal angiogram may be necessary if there is an abnormality in the vascular exam.
Answer 5: Surgical exploration and stabilization may eventually be necessary, but are not the next best step in treatment.

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